Normal Midwifery Day 2 Quiz - Midwives Revision

Welcome to your Normal Midwifery Day 2 Quiz

6 February 2026

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1. Antenatal care is best described as:

a) Care given to a woman only during labour.

b) Planned care and supervision from the start of antenatal clinic attendance until the beginning of labour.

c) Care given to a woman after delivery of the baby.

d) Unscheduled care provided only when complications arise during pregnancy.

2. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the social history taken during antenatal booking?

a) Smoking and alcohol habits.

b) Marital status and happiness.

c) Home environment and hygiene.

d) Past surgical history of the woman.

3. Naegele's rule is used in antenatal care to calculate the:

a) Gestational age in weeks.

b) Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD).

c) Fetal weight.

d) Mother's Body Mass Index (BMI).

4. A significant increase in blood pressure during pregnancy (≥30 mmHg systolic or ≥15-20 mmHg diastolic) should prompt the midwife to:

a) Immediately admit the woman for delivery.

b) Advise the woman to reduce salt intake.

c) Test urine for protein and assess for pre-eclampsia symptoms.

d) Reassure the woman that blood pressure fluctuations are normal in pregnancy.

5. Leopold's Maneuvers are used during abdominal palpation to determine:

a) Cervical dilation and effacement.

b) Fetal lie, presentation, position, and engagement.

c) The strength and frequency of uterine contractions.

d) The amount of amniotic fluid.

6. Pelvic assessment is best performed at or after 36 weeks gestation because:

a) The fetus is in the optimal position for assessment.

b) Pelvic joints are more relaxed due to relaxin hormone.

c) The mother is more comfortable in late pregnancy.

d) It is too early to assess pelvic adequacy before 36 weeks.

7. External pelvic assessment (external pelvimetry) primarily relies on:

a) Digital measurements of pelvic diameters.

b) Ultrasound imaging of the pelvis.

c) History taking and observations of the woman's physical characteristics.

d) X-ray pelvimetry.

8. Internal pelvic assessment (digital pelvimetry) is performed using:

a) External calipers to measure pelvic bones.

b) Ultrasound to visualize pelvic structures.

c) Gloved fingers inserted into the vagina to palpate pelvic landmarks.

d) X-ray imaging of the pelvis.

9. True labour is characterized by:

a) Irregular contractions that are relieved by rest.

b) Pain mainly felt in the abdomen.

c) Cervical dilation and regular, intensifying contractions.

d) Contractions that do not increase in frequency or intensity.

10. Premonitory signs of labour are:

a) Definitive indicators that labour has started.

b) Early indications that labour is approaching.

c) Only experienced by first-time mothers.

d) Always accompanied by rupture of membranes.

11. Lightening, a premonitory sign of labour, refers to:

a) A sudden decrease in fetal movements.

b) The baby dropping lower into the pelvis.

c) Increased vaginal discharge.

d) A surge of energy.

12. The first stage of labour ends when:

a) The baby is born.

b) The placenta is delivered.

c) The cervix is fully dilated (10 cm).

d) Regular contractions begin.

13. The latent phase of the first stage of labour is characterized by:

a) Rapid cervical dilation from 4 cm to 10 cm.

b) Slow cervical dilation from 0 to 3-4 cm and irregular contractions.

c) The expulsion of the fetus.

d) The delivery of the placenta.

14. Fundal dominance in uterine contractions means:

a) Contractions are strongest in the lower uterine segment.

b) Contractions are strongest in the upper part of the uterus.

c) Contractions are equally strong throughout the uterus.

d) Contractions are only felt in the fundus.

15. Cervical effacement refers to:

a) The measurement of cervical dilation in centimeters.

b) The softening of the cervix.

c) The thinning and shortening of the cervical canal.

d) The descent of the fetal head into the cervix.