Abnormal Midwifery Week 1 Exam

Welcome to your Abnormal Midwifery Week 1 Exam

20 May 2025

Attempt all 40 Questions

1. Which of the following is a contributing factor to Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A. Lower levels of hCG

B. Primigravida status

C. Advanced maternal age over 40

D. Planned pregnancy

2. What hormonal change is associated with causing Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A. Decreased estrogen levels

B. Elevated progesterone levels

C. Reduced hCG levels

D. Increased levels of thyroxine

3. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of severe Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A. Ketone production

B. Increased appetite

C. Weight loss

D. Dry and elastic skin

4. What condition is associated with Polyhydramnios?

A. Anencephaly

B. Primigravida status

C. Low hCG levels

D. Maternal age over 40

5. What is the most common complication of multiple pregnancies?

A) Post-term delivery

B) Preterm birth

C) Gestational diabetes

D) Hyperemesis gravidarum

6. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with symmetrical IUGR?

A) Maternal malnutrition

B) Placental insufficiency

C) Maternal substance abuse

D) Multiple pregnancies

7. What characteristic feature differentiates asymmetrical IUGR from symmetrical IUGR?

A) Smaller head circumference

B) Proportionally smaller body parts

C) Normal head circumference with smaller abdomen

D) Reduced limb length

8. What is the primary function of amniotic fluid?

A. Preventing maternal infections

B. Providing nutrition to the fetus

C. Cushioning the fetus from external trauma

D. Facilitating maternal-fetal nutrient exchange

9. What is the primary cause of fetal distress during pregnancy in cases of IUGR?

A) Excessive weight gain by the mother

B) Reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus

C) High blood pressure in the fetus

D) Overuse of supplements

10. What is the minimum gestational age or fetal weight that qualifies as Intrauterine Fetal Death (IUFD)?

A. 20 weeks of gestation or 300 grams

B. 24 weeks of gestation or 500 grams

C. 22 weeks of gestation or 450 grams

D. 28 weeks of gestation or 600 grams

11. What condition might necessitate an ophthalmologic examination in Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A. Severe nausea

B. Vomiting

C. Dehydration

D. Visual disturbances

12. What is a recommended measure to take for intrapartum monitoring of twins?

A) External monitoring only

B) Intermittent auscultation

C) Continuous electronic fetal monitoring

D) Delayed monitoring

13. Which maternal condition can lead to placental insufficiency, resulting in IUFD?

A. Hyperthyroidism

B. Hypertensive Disorders

C. Asthma

D. Hyperlipidemia

14. Which of the following is a fetal condition that can cause oligohydramnios?

A) Dehydration

B) Postmaturity

C) Renal Agenesis

D) Preeclampsia

15. What does the "egg-shell crackling" sign indicate in the context of IUFD?

A. Fetal Heartbeat Detection

B. Softening of Cranial Bones

C. Placental Abruption

D. Uterine Contractions

16. What type of birth is most commonly recommended for women with IUFD?

A. Cesarean Section

B. Vaginal Birth

C. Forceps Delivery

D. Vacuum Extraction

17. What is the amount of amniotic fluid considered diagnostic for oligohydramnios at term?

A) Less than 500 mL

B) Less than 300 mL

C) Less than 200 mL

D) Less than 100 mL

18. Which of the following is NOT a complication associated with oligohydramnios?

A) Club Foot

B) Fetal Pulmonary Hypoplasia

C) Hydramnios

D) Cord Compression

19. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for severe Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A. Immediate oral feeding

B. Hospitalization and IV fluids

C. Intensive physical exercise

D. High-fat diet

20. What is the most common presentation in cases of oligohydramnios?

A) Vertex Presentation

B) Breech Presentation

C) Transverse Lie

D) Cephalic Presentation

21. Which of the following is a potential long-term complication for a child born with IUGR?

A) Rapid weight gain in infancy

B) Delayed intellectual development

C) Decreased risk of metabolic syndrome

D) Increased muscle mass

22. What is a common complication of IUFD during labor?

A. Prolonged Labor

B. Insomnia

C. Headache

D. Constipation

23. Which sign is characterized by the overlap of fetal skull bones observed after IUFD?

A. Spalding Sign

B. Robert's Sign

C. Oligohydramnios

D. Hyperflexion of Spine

24. What is the definition of a post-term pregnancy?

A. A pregnancy continuing beyond 40 weeks of gestation

B. A pregnancy continuing beyond 42 weeks of gestation

C. A pregnancy continuing beyond 38 weeks of gestation

D. A pregnancy continuing beyond 36 weeks of gestation

25. How is Rh incompatibility diagnosed during pregnancy?

A. Ultrasound Imaging

B. Indirect Coombs Test

C. Amniocentesis

D. Maternal Blood Pressure Monitoring

26. What is the primary preventive measure for Rh immunization during pregnancy?

A. Routine Ultrasound

B. Anti-D Immunoglobulin Prophylaxis

C. Weekly Blood Tests

D. Cesarean Section

27. Which of the following is a common sign of fetal distress in a post-term pregnancy?

A. Normal fetal heart rate

B. Decreased fetal movements

C. Increased amniotic fluid levels

D. Absence of meconium in the amniotic fluid

28. What is the primary indication for considering elective cesarean section in a post-term pregnancy?

A. Mild maternal hypertension

B. Fetal macrosomia with associated complications

C. Uncomplicated post-term pregnancy

D. Low amniotic fluid levels without fetal distress

29. What is the primary treatment for severe hemolytic disease of the newborn due to Rh incompatibility?

A. Phototherapy

B. Exchange Transfusion

C. Anti-D Immunoglobulin

D. Cesarean Delivery

30. Which of the following is the most common type of anemia during pregnancy and is treated with iron supplementation?

A. Sickle Cell Anemia

B. Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

C. Iron-Deficiency Anemia

D. Aplastic Anemia

31. ___ is a prenatal procedure in which a small amount of amniotic fluid is extracted from the uterus for testing, often to diagnose genetic conditions or assess fetal lung maturity.

32. The term ___ refers to a condition where a fetus is significantly larger than average for its gestational age, often in diabetes mothers.

33. ___ is a common condition in newborns characterized by a yellowing of the skin and eyes due to elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood.

34. ___ is a genetic blood disorder in which red blood cells become abnormally shaped, leading to complications such as pain, anemia, and increased risk of infection.

35. ___ occurs when a baby's shoulder becomes stuck behind the mother's pelvic bone during delivery, making the birth process more difficult and potentially leading to birth injuries.

36. ___ refers to a condition where there is inadequate oxygen supply to the fetus, which can result in fetal distress and potential damage to organs.

37. ___ is the measurement of the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) and is used to estimate fetal growth and gestational age.

38. ___ is a severe condition in which excess fluid accumulates in the fetus's body cavities, commonly seen in RH Incompartibility.

39. ___ is a crucial mineral that is often supplemented during pregnancy to prevent and treat iron-deficiency anemia.

40. Thanks for reaching this far, i guess a free mark will do you well.

Yes

Nah